
Explanation:
Option C is the correct answer (it is the FALSE statement).
For an equity tranche, the tail worst-case value (e.g., at the 99% confidence level) is typically zero, because the tranche is completely wiped out in high-loss scenarios. Credit Value at Risk (VaR) is defined as the difference between the Expected Value (Mean) and the worst-case quantile value. Thus, for the equity tranche: Credit VaR ≈ Expected Value - 0 = Expected Value.
Why the other options are true:
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Each histogram is labeled by its default probability and correlation assumption. The solid grid line marks the mean value over the 1,000 simulations. The dashed and dotted grid lines mark the 0.01 and 0.05 quantile values. With respect to the credit VaR of the equity tranche, Malz writes, "we measure the credit VaR at a confidence level of 99 (or 95) percent as the difference between the 10th (or 50th) lowest sorted simulation value and the par value of $5,000,000. The latter value, as noted, is close to the mean present value of the cash flows with default (pi) = 2.25 percent and correlation (ρ) = 0.30. The 99-percent credit VaR can then be read graphically as the horizontal distance between the dashed and solid grid lines".¹³
With respect to the equity tranchе, each of the following is true EXCEPT which is false?
A
For a given correlation, an increase in the default rate implies a lower (expected) equity tranche value
B
For a given default rate, an increase in correlation implies an increase in (expected) equity tranche value
C
For a given default rate, an increase in correlation implies a decrease in equity Credit VaR; but for a given correlation, a higher default rate implies an increase in equity Credit VaR
D
At low correlations, the equity value is substantially positively convex in default rates