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Financial Risk Manager Part 2

Financial Risk Manager Part 2


Explanation:

Recall that:

Portfolio VaR = VaRₚ = ασₚW = α√(x′Σx)

The first step is to calculate the variance of the portfolio dollar returns. Let x be the dollar amounts allocated to each risk factor, in millions. We first calculate the product:

Σx = \begin{bmatrix} 0.065^2 & 0 \\ 0 & 0.1^2 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} \`4 \\ \3` \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0.065^2 \times \`4 + 0 \times \3` \\ 0 \times \`4 + 0.1^2 \times \3` \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} \`0.0169 \\ \0.03` \end{bmatrix}

Therefore, the portfolio value in dollar returns is:

σₚ²W² = x′Σx = \begin{bmatrix} \`4 & \3` \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} \`0.0169 \\ \0.03` \end{bmatrix} = \`4 \times 0.0169 + \3‘×0.03=0.15763` \times 0.03 = 0.15763‘×0.03=0.1576

The dollar volatility is:

√0.1576 = $0.396989 million

With α = 1.65, the portfolio VaR is given as:

VaRₚ = 1.65 × $396,989 = $655,032

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Q.3026 We are given a portfolio having two foreign currencies, namely the Australian Dollar (AUD) and the Sterling Pound (GBP). These two currencies are uncorrelated, with standard deviations against the dollar of 6.5% and 10%, respectively. The portfolio has USD 4 million invested in the AUD and USD 3 million invested in the GBP. Compute the portfolio VaR at the 95% confidence level, assuming that α = 1.65.

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UAnonymous
Last updated: July 5, 2026 at 07:07
0

    A

    USD 675,218


    B

    USD 546,889


    C

    USD 655,032


    D

    USD 586,274

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