Q.1513 As we know, mapping is the simple process of analyzing the market instruments on primitive risk factors. Considering this concept, let’s take a single instrument that has a market value of $V_m$. It is allocated to specific risk exposures namely $X_1$, $X_2$, and $X_3$. Suppose not all of the current market value $V_m$ is allocated to these risk factors, and there are no omitted factors. What does that imply with regard to the remaining value? | Financial Risk Manager Part 2 Quiz - LeetQuiz