
Explanation:
Setting a higher threshold for collateral calls means that collateral is requested only when the exposure exceeds a certain higher amount. This reduces the frequency of collateral movements, thereby saving on administrative efforts. However, it also means that the fund is exposed to a higher level of credit risk as the buffer against counterparty default is increased.
A is incorrect because a longer remargining period, while reducing operational efforts, actually increases exposure to market volatility and the risk of counterparty default, especially in fast-moving markets.
C is incorrect as a lower minimum transfer amount indeed increases the frequency of collateral movements, which can reduce exposure risk but at the cost of higher transaction costs and operational complexity.
D is incorrect because changing the remargining period, threshold, and minimum transfer amount significantly impacts the fund’s exposure and associated risks, especially in terms of credit risk and operational efficiency.
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collateralization policy impact the fund's exposure, and what are the risks associated with the remargining period, threshold, and minimum transfer amount?
A
A longer remargining period reduces operational burden as well as exposure risk due to potential market value changes of derivatives.
B
A higher threshold for collateral calls decreases the frequency of collateral exchanges, reducing administrative costs but increasing credit risk.
C
A lower minimum transfer amount increases the frequency of collateral movements, thereby reducing exposure as well as transaction costs.
D
Shortening the remargining period and lowering the threshold and minimum transfer amount have no significant impact on the fund's exposure or associated risks.