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Financial Risk Manager Part 2

Financial Risk Manager Part 2


Explanation:

First, compute the standard deviation:
σ=0.49490≈0.022136\sigma = \frac{0.49}{\sqrt{490}} \approx 0.022136σ=490​0.49​≈0.022136

Using the 95% confidence level, the z-score is approximately $1.645.. .VaR = z \times \sigma = 1.645 \times 0.022136 \approx 0.03641$

Under the constant spread approach, the liquidity cost (LC) per unit is:
LC=0.5×spread=0.5×0.02=0.01LC = 0.5 \times spread = 0.5 \times 0.02 = 0.01LC=0.5×spread=0.5×0.02=0.01

The percentage increase in VaR due to the liquidity adjustment is:
LCVaR=0.010.03641≈0.2746\frac{LC}{VaR} = \frac{0.01}{0.03641} \approx 0.2746VaRLC​=0.036410.01​≈0.2746 or $27.46%$

Therefore, the constant spread liquidity adjustment raises the VaR by almost 27%.

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Q.59 A financial manager wishes to estimate the liquidity-adjusted VaR using the constant spread approach. She gathers the following data:

μ=0,σ=0.49490,spread=0.02,α=0.95\mu = 0, \sigma = \frac{0.49}{\sqrt{490}}, \text{spread} = 0.02, \alpha = 0.95μ=0,σ=490​0.49​,spread=0.02,α=0.95

Based on these data, which of the following statements is true? Please click here if you want to use the standard normal table

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UAnonymous
Last updated: July 5, 2026 at 07:20
0

    A

    The constant spread liquidity adjustment raises the VaR by almost 27%


    B

    The constant spread liquidity adjustment reduces the VaR by 28%


    C

    A small spread cannot translate into a large liquidity adjustment to the VaR


    D

    The constant spread liquidity adjustment raises the VaR by 50%

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