
Explanation:
Counterparty risk is indeed bilateral in nature. This is because in a financial transaction, particularly in derivatives, both parties involved have a potential risk towards each other. The value of the contract can be either positive or negative, and this uncertainty creates a risk for both parties. If one party defaults on their obligations, the other party stands to incur a financial loss. Therefore, both parties have a risk towards each other, making counterparty risk bilateral.
Choice A is incorrect. Counterparty risk is not unilateral. It is bilateral because both parties in the transaction bear a risk to each other. The risk arises from the possibility that one party may default on their obligations.
Choice C is incorrect. The assertion that the value of the contract in the future is certain contradicts with the nature of counterparty risk, which inherently involves uncertainty about whether a counterparty will fulfill its contractual obligations.
Choice D is incorrect. Counterparty risk does depend on the value of underlying security, but it's not fixed and can fluctuate over time due to various factors such as market volatility, changes in creditworthiness of counterparties etc., making this statement false.
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Q.1860 Which of the following statements is true about counterparty risk?
A
Counterparty risk is unilateral because only one counterparty bears a risk.
B
Counterparty risk is bilateral because cash flows can be negative or positive and both counterparties have a risk to the other counterparty.
C
The value of the contract in the future is certain.
D
Counterparty risk is not uncertain but depends upon the value of the underlying security which is fixed.
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