
Explanation:
C is correct. Less direct forms of credit risk should be included in exposure measures but may be hard to capture. These would include risk on a swap, such commodity swap. Contingent claims and future commitments need to be captured but might emerge only when a client is near failure. For example, letters of credit and performance bonds are often not funded and only become funded when there is a triggering event. Additionally, derivatives are typically subject to margining that keeps current exposure close to zero but when a large corporate is failing, it may be unable to add further margin, and its failure can add to market volatility that moves derivative values.
A is incorrect. Connected counterparties should be captured but the reading provides a 15-20% minimum for ownership and looks for other evidence of control or interrelationship.
B is incorrect. Insurers will typically have other sources of funding and repayment, and their failure would typically not bring about the failure of VH3. [Guarantors typically have better credit quality than the party guaranteed. Insurers themselves are often subject to exposure limits that keep them from being significantly impacted by demise of VH3. It is not unusual to treat a guaranteed obligation as risk of the guarantor.]
D is incorrect. A bank has exposure to related parties but does not directly own the exposures that related parties may have to an obligor. The reading treats related party exposures separately from single customer exposures.
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A
Loans to companies in which VH3 has a 10% to 15% ownership position
B
Exposures to insurers who have issued guarantees for the obligations of VH3
C
A commodity swap position with VH3 where the bank is the fixed-price receiver
D
Claims on affiliates of the bank that have exposures to VH3