
Explanation:
Option C is correct.
Here is the step-by-step calculation:
1. Calculate Total Asset Return:
2. Calculate Total Liabilities Interest:
3. Calculate Excess Spread:
4. Allocate the Excess Spread:
This perfectly matches Option C.
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| Liabilities | Amount (GBP) | Coupon |
|---|---|---|
| Senior debt | 37,500,000 | LIBOR + 45 bps |
| Mezzanine debt | 10,000,000 | LIBOR + 300 bps |
| Equity | 2,500,000 |
The manager reports that the CLO initially has no overcollateralization, and the annual excess spread flowing into the overcollateralization account has a limit of GBD 250,000. Suppose the LIBOR curve remains flat at 4% in the first year, and assuming no defaults in the collateral pool and no management and transaction fees, what are the correct amounts that the manager would post to the overcollateralization account and to the equity tranche after the first year?
A
Overcollateralization Account: GBP 0 | Equity Tranche: GBP 0
B
Overcollateralization Account: GBP 0 | Equity Tranche: GBP 381,250
C
Overcollateralization Account: GBP 250,000 | Equity Tranche: GBP 131,250
D
Overcollateralization Account: GBP 381,250 | Equity Tranche: GBP 0