**22.15.3.** Parislaza Investment Corp is a French money manager who is offered the following (aka, underlying) investment opportunity: they can invest \$10.0 million U.S. dollars (USD) into a dollar-denominated asset and earn an interest rate of 7.0% per annum over a six-year tenor. At the end of the six-year tenor, the \$10.0 million principal will be returned. However, during that period Parislaza has a belief (i.e., a concern) that the dollar will depreciate against its own domestic currency, which is the euro (EUR). The Fiber's spot exchange (FX) rate is \$1.150 EURUSD and—simply for unrealistic convenience—we will assume that interest rates are comparable between the USD and EUR (including identical riskfree rates such that the FX forward curve is conveniently flat. Consequently, fixed-for-fixed currency swaps are available (with an initial zero value to both counterparties) at multiple tenors that swap the initial principal at the current spot rate; pay the same interest rate to both legs, and finally re-swap the same principal amounts at the end. If Parislaza takes advantage of the U.S. dollar investment opportunity, which of the following derivatives is the best trade (in addition to the underlying investment) that expresses its specific belief that the dollar will depreciate against the EUR? a) No additional trade because USD depreciation already favors the underlying investment b) No additional trade, but only if Parislaza additionally believes that the EUR will appreciate against the USD c) Enter into a fixed-for-fixed currency swap with principal of €8.70 million EUR to receive interest of €0.61 million EUR per annum d) Enter into a fixed-for-fixed currency swap with principal of \$10.0 million USD to receive interest of \$0.70 million USD per annum | Financial Risk Manager Part 1 Quiz - LeetQuiz